What if the sex actually transpired but between two parties equally inebriated? Why does it constitute rape on the part of the male but victimhood on the part of the female, even if it was mutually consensual? Why is the male adjudged fully competent (and hence, fully liable) while the female is held blameless due to her diminished capacity?
Sadly, we are also typically physically stronger.
The case would end with the man being guilty and the woman's guilt “not proven.”
It is kind of difficult for us to say we didn't at least have battery proven against us, if not rape.
In the end, we need to keep our privates, private and keep ourselves sober enough to be beyond reproach.