So I am assuming that SCOTUS found that this was not a violation of the 5th amendment’s protection against self incrimination?
I can’t even understand how the 6th circuit could have found otherwise (the 9th circuit I would have expected as much). I mean fed cruin out loud THE GUY PLED GUILTY!!!!!!
What the SCOTUS said was, failure to issue the instruction was "not unreasonable." Therefore, the Federal courts could not intervene via habeas, which is limited by the AEDPA of 1996.