[Mrs. Don-o]

You really ought not to press this argument, editor, since anyone can google "Jesus" and get the translation into a whole range of languages, Aramaic, Arabic, Syriac, what-have-you. His name was on the Cross three times: in Hebrew, Greek, and Latin. Do you suppose it was spelled the same in all three inscriptions?

This idea that "Jesus" is a 17th century pseudonym meant to cover his Jewishness, is nonsense and just makes you sound paranoid. It would show a better grasp of the evidence, just to say "I prefer Yeshua, but of course translations and transliterations are fine as well."

[editor-surveyor]

The name “Jesus” was never said, read, nor heard until the 17th century.

The Hebrews, Aramaics and Greeks used the same phonic rendition of his name, differing only in the characters used to generate that particular phonic. (Greek always added an s sound to most names)

How do you suppose the early English translators managed to get it right only for Joshua?