This idea that "Jesus" is a 17th century pseudonym meant to cover his Jewishness, is nonsense and just makes you sound paranoid. It would show a better grasp of the evidence, just to say "I prefer Yeshua, but of course translations and transliterations are fine as well."
The name “Jesus” was never said, read, nor heard until the 17th century.
The Hebrews, Aramaics and Greeks used the same phonic rendition of his name, differing only in the characters used to generate that particular phonic. (Greek always added an s sound to most names)
How do you suppose the early English translators managed to get it right only for Joshua?