The statement was that a physician would be perfectly happy to deny the Class II narcotic, but perfectly willing to prescribe the other even if not needed.
Generally speaking, this physician does not exist if we’re addressing a pediatrician.
The twisted logic used to make this comparison, is flawed.
I understand. The point was that the classifications seem to create a perception that there are potential negative consequences to over prescribing one but not the other, and that doesn’t seem to be a good assumption.