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To: Gene Eric
What is “gay marriage” without sodomy?

The impetus really all began with Lawrence v. Texas where sodomy was decriminalized, i.e. legitimized by another profligate Supreme Court. All else sprung from this decision, even seeping over our border to the north. Courts in Canada shortly after imposed this concoction, followed quickly by Massachusetts. Sodomites were emboldened beyond telling by now deeming their behavior not only "legitimate," but "equal in every way" to natural sexual relationships.

Scalia warned at the time (2003) that such a decision should be used to legitimize ANY lifestyle that someone deemed essential to their personal meaning of life. And it was.

How far off is pedophilia?

56 posted on 06/28/2013 6:49:11 PM PDT by fwdude ( You cannot compromise with that which you must defeat.)
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To: fwdude
The impetus really all began with Lawrence v. Texas where sodomy was decriminalized, i.e. legitimized by another profligate Supreme Court.

It is my understanding that Lawrence v. Texas not only legitimized sodomy, it made it impossible for sodomy to be criminalized anywhere, thus creating a new "God-given" right to sodomy.

From there to where we are now is a straight line.

The only thing we can do to stop this filth is a national marriage amendment. The wusses and armchair philosophers on this forum rejected that advice back in 2005, saying that DOMA was more than enough to protect us from the abomination of sodomite "marriage". The were absolutely wrong then.

The time for a national marriage amendment is now.
69 posted on 06/30/2013 9:27:32 PM PDT by Antoninus (Sorry, gone rogue.)
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