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To: Responsibility2nd
How about this? Instead of one parent being able to have a divorce regardless of the other parent's wishes, both parties have to agree to the divorce?

Not just the financial settlement and property division. Not just custody. Both parents would have to agree<> to the divorce itself.

That's "no-fault".

14 posted on 03/05/2013 11:50:19 AM PST by chesley (Vast deserts of political ignorance makes liberalism possible - James Lewis)
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To: chesley
Both parents would have to agree<> to the divorce itself.

Sure, because an abusive spouse would of course go along with a divorce request from the abused spouse.

28 posted on 03/05/2013 12:07:46 PM PST by ksen (". . . organized greed always defeats disorganized democracy" - Matt Taibbi)
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