This could be attributable to Murdoch or just to poor reporting, or even a lack of attention on my part, but I think he should be very clear when making statements along the lines of, “Why is Jewish owned press so consistently anti-Israel in every crisis?”
Is he only talking about a segment? Is he accepting a premise within this comment? Did I make a mistake of thinking he was referencing the press at large?
I’m willing to accept that I may have misinterpreted his intent.
I do accept that some media outlets are owned by people with Jewish ancestry. I do see a sad lack of understanding on their part, when it comes to what is best for Israel.
There are people out there who think ‘the Jews’ own everything and are gaming U. S. Citizens. I do view that premise in a very negative light. That probably did play into my response.
I may have been a little unfair to Murdock. It wasn’t intentional. In my instincts to be protective of certain people, there are times when I’m going to react to something seeing it as more improper than it was. This is probably an instance where I did.
Murdock and I do share the opinion that Israel does not get the support it should from certain segments of the U. S. populace.
I do not see the U. S. press owned by ‘the Jews’.
Thanks for the response.
Murdoch is a major media baron, and he’s not Jewish. Murdoch knows better than almost anyone that not all U.S. media are owned or controlled by Jews. When he talks about “Jewish-owned press” — he’s talking about particular media outlets, which happen to be owned by Jews.
The notion that U.S. media is controlled by Jews is widespread — and that’s what the critics, and the article writer were implying Murdoch meant. That’s left Murdoch apologizing, not for what he actually said; but for what his critics inferred from what they thought they heard him saying.