Miami-Dade, Broward, and Palm Beach counties - all heavily Democrat - allowed voting on Nov 4 & 5 via “in person absentee ballot”.
Voting on Nov 4 & 5 was prohibited elsewhere.
Allowing voting in these counties while prohibiting it in other counties violates the Equal Protection clause of the 14th Amendment:
“No State shall make or enforce any law which shall... deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws”
Why were voters in other counties prohibited from voting?
The unequal application of law was done with the knowledge and approval of Florida Secretary of State Detzner.
Detzner has performed his duty in a corrupt manner.
Fla. Stat. § 104.051(3) Any official who performs his or her duty as prescribed by this election code fraudulently or corruptly is guilty of a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084
IANAL
Seems like the precedent set in Bush v Gore should have something to say about that, if I’m understanding the issues in that lawsuit correctly. I’m not a lawyer either so maybe somebody can correct me if I’m wrong.
The thing that’s frustrating about this is that we were being told that Romney was prepared for legal battles over fraud, but he’s instead rolled over even though there is evidence of massive voter fraud in the swing states, as well as unequal protection issues involving military ballots and the stuff you mention.
Why is Romney not fighting this? He knew they would do the fraud thing. They always do.
If Rep. West wasn’t in any of the counties allowed extra days to vote, would he have a case under the equal protection clause?
Would he also have a case under the voting rights act?
And how about discrimination on account of racial background?
He went and voted, but wasn’t given those extra days :)