There are more ways than one to skew a poll. NPR had +4%D sample, ie oversampling Democrats, but not as much as some other polls. But the poll also oversampled women:
54% women/46% men. That will skew the results.
Can anyone tell me if there ever has been such a skewed gender participation in any national election since women got the right to vote? I would be v..e..r..y surprised if that were the case.
Maybe, but I just don’t buy the idea that all these pollsters are destroying their reputation by reporting something that doesn’t exist. In 2008 was the same story. All the polls were wrong... until they were right. I believe there are a lot of pollsters who have their reputations at stake and are reporting reality, whether we like it or not.
yea.. in 2008. I don't recall the exact number, but the skew toward women was AT LEAST that much, or more...
Women in thus country are becoming more educated than men... and, they now VOTE more.
54% women/46% men. That will skew the results.
Correction: In 2008, the breakdown of actual voters was: 53.7% Women
46.3% Men
It's a surprisingly hard statistice to come up with. But, that's what I calculated, using actual voter numbers.