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To: Ol' Dan Tucker

God’s Law is universal and applicable to everyone. As God’s Word tells us we are all sinners and all need Christ, that means all have broken God’s laws, Jewish or not.

You can’t compartmentalize God’s Word this way. The dietary and ceremonial laws God gave to the Jews are not the eternal, universal unchanging, spiritually perfect laws of God as sumarized in the 10 commandments, for example. your statement says you put all/of that on the same plane, that it’s all only applicable to the jews. that is not right.

The whole bible is Gods Word and is applicable fully. And it has to be because those that are not yet saved, God’s Word says they are under the Law right now, they stand condemned and as law’breakers. If the Law didn’t still apply to people the OT wold be irrelevant and we could’t talk about sinners being sinners and trying to get them to repent.


41 posted on 10/02/2012 1:31:15 PM PDT by Secret Agent Man (I can neither confirm or deny that; even if I could, I couldn't - it's classified.)
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To: Secret Agent Man
The dietary and ceremonial laws God gave to the Jews are not the eternal, universal unchanging, spiritually perfect laws of God as sumarized in the 10 commandments, for example. your statement says you put all/of that on the same plane, that it’s all only applicable to the jews. that is not right.

The laws in Leviticus 20 are not dietary or ceremonial laws, but how to deal with sinners, such as those who curse their mothers or fathers and those who commit adultery. In Leviticus 20, the punishment for such offenses is death.

If the OT laws are fully applicable to everyone, Jew and Gentile alike, then do you believe that someone who curses their father or mother and someone who commits adultery should be put to death without exception as it commands in Leviticus 20?

Or, do you believe that we should forgive 70 times 7 trespasses as Jesus commanded in Matthew 18:22?

The whole bible is Gods Word and is applicable fully. And it has to be because those that are not yet saved, God’s Word says they are under the Law right now

In Romans 10:4, Paul clearly states: "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth."

If what you say is so, then please explain what Paul means in Galatians 3 and Galatians 5. (Galatians 3:13 - "Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree", Galtians 5:14 - "For all the law is fulfilled in one word, even in this; Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself.")

If the law of Christ in the NT does not supersede the OT, then the two are contradictory. You can't forgive a sinner 70 times 7 and put him to death for cursing his mother or father or for committing adultery.

If the laws of Leviticus were not meant to be superseded, then Jesus would not have interceded for Mary when the Pharisees wanted to stone her for adultery in John 8.

43 posted on 10/02/2012 3:27:30 PM PDT by Ol' Dan Tucker (People should not be afraid of the government. Government should be afraid of the people)
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