Wonder why there are 10 million descendants in India as a result of invading armies since Alexander the Great, Tamarlane and Chengiz Khan days. As far as I know none of the sex between marauding soldiers and indigent females was consensual.
We know that rape is less likely to result in conception than consensual sex, if for no other reason than that people who engage in consensual sex are more likely to actually be trying to concieve, and therefore are targetting for the woman's ovulation time, whereas rape is more or less "random" and therefore the chance of it occurring during a woman's ovulation cycle is smaller.