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To: Alberta's Child

Why is it always incumbent upon the USA to make the declaration? Germany declared war on the USA back in 1941; did we really have to make a counter-declaration? Iran and other “non-state aggressors” have also declared war on us. Assange most definitely waged war on us by taking our state secrets and making them public. Acts of war are still acts of war.


17 posted on 08/19/2012 11:09:37 AM PDT by Olog-hai
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To: Olog-hai
Why is it always incumbent upon the USA to make the declaration?

Because Article I, Section 8 of the U.S. Constitution kind of requires it.

The U.S. was effectively at war with Germany long before Germany formally declared war in 1941. The U.S. was supplying arms and munitions to Great Britain long before that, and they were being transported to Britain under escort by U.S. naval vessels in the North Atlantic.

Assange "waged war on us"? LOL. You must be kidding me. We can't even figure out what the hell our military is doing in places like Iraq and Afghanistan, and you're going to put that on him?

33 posted on 08/19/2012 7:21:22 PM PDT by Alberta's Child ("If you touch my junk, I'm gonna have you arrested.")
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