I don’t understand the chain of events.
14 months ago this guy was declared incompetent to stand trial.
Are they claiming he was competent when he committed the murders?
Then - after the murders - he became incompetent?
Then - after taking medication - he became competent again?
Now that he’s competent, does he go to a regular maximum security facility?
If he murders a fellow prisoner, does this dance start over again?
Please don’t get the kooks started.
Some loon is likely to post that it was a “false flag” operation.
Make FreeRepublic look bad.
Competent to stand trial and not guilty by reason of insanity are two completely different standards. So, he could, in the same exact mental state, be incompetent to stand trial, and yet still be sane enough to be criminally liable for his actions.
They’re not making any declaration about his sanity at the time of the murders. Now that he’s pleaded guilty it doesn’t matter, he’ll be in prison, he’ll be seeing prison shrinks, he might even wind up doing his time in psychiatric facilities.