If Roberts really has hamstrung the governments power under the Commerce Clause, why did he have to uphold Obamacare under taxation?
Why could he not have sided with the Kennedy and the conservatives, struck down Obamacare, and STILL issued his opinion on the Commerce Clause?
“If Roberts really has hamstrung the governments power under the Commerce Clause, why did he have to uphold Obamacare under taxation?
Why could he not have sided with the Kennedy and the conservatives, struck down Obamacare, and STILL issued his opinion on the Commerce Clause?”
You have phrased my questions well...
I am wondering (please pardon my lack of knowledge - I am on FB in an attempt to learn and understand): if, because Justice Roberts has “interpreted” Obamacare as a TAX, does it not need to go back to the House of Representatives? WE, THE PEOPLE, have NOT had our opinion voiced regarding a TAX!