I’m not tracking on how this proves it is Jewish land.
1. There were no Muslims in the 6th Century AD. So proving there weren’t any around during that period isn’t too tough.
2. At the time (Byzantine period, as stated in the article) the overwhelming majority of the population was Christian.
3. There were Jewish bakeries all over Europe as well. That does not make Europe legitimately a historical part of Israel.
4. If you were to use the logic that the people there in the 6th Century have the right to the place, I look forward to Greek control of the ME. Sure, Greece is a mess, but not as big a mess as the rest of the ME.
I’m pro-Israel because they are the only real democracy in the Middle East. I think we need to defend them and their expansion because of their ideology, not because of a single bread stamp found at one archaeological site.
You are missing the point of the discovery. In the attempt to delegitimize Israel, Arabs and their fellow-travelers maintain a propaganda line that the Jews have no historical connection to the land at all and that, even if they once did, it ended thousands of years ago, thereby breaking the chain of any historical claims to the land. This archaeological find, like many others, debunks that propaganda by showing a Jewish presence maintained all down the centuries, even during Christian majorities that came and went and preceding the Muslim religion and its claims. In other words, the point is not that kosher bakeries are, in themselves, proof of the Jewish claim to Israel, but part of the historical record showing that Jews were there and never relinquished their claims and their attachment to the land as their homeland.
PS. The article does not say, as you imply, that there were no Muslims. The article does not say that the Jews were the majority population. In fact, it explicitly acknowledges that the area of the find was under Christian control. The article does not say the Jews claim Europe as a historical part of Israel based on Kosher bakeries in Europe, nor does the article claim that Kosher bakeries are the basis for Jewish claims to the land of Israel (I realize this was purely rhetorical, but still...). The analogy to Greece is a non-starter. The Greeks never established a Greek nation in Israel and did not maintain a continuous presence or claim to the land of Israel as a Greek homeland.
I don’t think we have to prove that our origins are in Israel, or that we were an important part of the population during the Middle Ages, although the majority of the population were Christians of one kind or another after the Roman Empire became Christian. Furthermore, I agree with you that a single bread stamp doesn’t prove anything other than that some Jews did live in Akko during the Middle Ages. Journalists and logic are often not seen together.
2. At the time (Byzantine period, as stated in the article) the overwhelming majority of the population was Christian.
Not at all. In 617CE, during the last uprising, Christians were a plurality, with Jews and Samaritans combining as a majority to try to expel the colonists in the last Persian-Byzantine War. For over a year, Jerusalem was ours again.
3. There were Jewish bakeries all over Europe as well. That does not make Europe legitimately a historical part of Israel.
That's true, but there never was such a claim.
4. If you were to use the logic that the people there in the 6th Century have the right to the place, I look forward to Greek control of the ME. Sure, Greece is a mess, but not as big a mess as the rest of the ME.
How about we just give them Constantinopel, Smyrna and everything in between?