[BroJoeK]

John Leland 1789: "All other English “bibles” since 1881 come from corrupted Alexandrian manuscripts.
In the case of the word “science” only the KJB is correct.
Precisely because the HS knew the end-time generations would have an inordinate love for science over God’s word. "

According to Clarke's Commentary, the Greek in 1 Timothy 6:20 is:

"kai antiqeseiv thv yeudwnumou gnwsewv."
translated: "And oppositions of knowledge falsely so named.

Clarke's explains that the same Greek word here translated by King James as "science", KJV previously translates correctly in 1 Corinthians 14:6 as "knowledge".
And that verse also helps provide context for what kind of "knowledge" is referred to: inspired knowledge, such as Gnostics claimed to have received.

This was obviously falsely inspired "knowledge", and that is just what Paul's letter to Timothy says.

So any suggestion that such knowledge could refer to modern scientific methods is simply perverting the original meaning to suit your own purposes.

Here is the explanation quoted in Clarke's:

"In the enumeration of the different kinds of inspiration bestowed on the first preachers of the Gospel, 1 Cor. xii. 8, we find the word of knowledge mentioned; by which is meant that kind of inspiration which gave to the apostles and superior Christian prophets the knowledge of the true meaning of the Jewish Scriptures.

"This inspiration the false teachers pretending to possess, dignified their misinterpretations of the ancient Scriptures with the name of knowledge, that is, inspired knowledge; for so the word signifies, 1 Cor. xiv. 6.
And as by these interpretations they endeavoured to establish the efficacy of the Levitical atonements, the apostle very properly termed these interpretations oppositions of knowledge, because they were framed to establish doctrines opposite to, and subversive of, the Gospel.

"To destroy the credit of these teachers, he affirmed that the knowledge from which they proceeded was falsely called inspired knowledge; for they were not inspired with the knowledge of the meaning of the Scriptures, but only pretended to it."

By way of comparison & contrast: a Hebrew word more appropriately translated as "science" appears in Daniel 1:4, and the context makes clear that it means practical, not "inspired", knowledge, indeed, NIV translates that word as "aptitude".

Bottom line: the definition of the Greek word "yeudwnumou" is found in the King James translation itself, in 1 Corinthians 14:6 = knowledge -- in this case knowledge falsely inspired.

So this has nothing -- zero, zip, nada -- to do with some manuscripts from Alexandria.

[John Leland 1789]

Because Clark, as many in his day, were stuck on the Alexandrian line of Greek manuscripts; upon those he bases his commentaries. And the readings of all those texts are highly opionated in commentary form.

The KJB rendering is correct.