It seems to me that if she has been commuting between India and England for 15 years, and has presumably learned English, that she would have realized that her husband would prosper better in England if he could communicate reasonably in English. 15 years is a long time, they’ve had plenty of time to think this through. No sympathy, unless he’s mentally disabled or something that really does prevent him from learning a language, and it does not appear that’s their argument.
This is likely a deliberate test case, designed to be as sympathetic as they can make it. I wonder if they are muslims? This could be a bit of "lawfare" (war by using our western laws against the west) to insure that colonization of the west can easily continue.