i didn’t know that — does it still retain differences in declination of cases for each gender? and when did this change?
“i didn’t know that — does it still retain differences in declination of cases for each gender? and when did this change?”
I don’t think it does, not outside of dialectal varieties which retain archaisms or something, if those. But as with the second question, judging from the good, linguistically knowledgeable response to my post above, Lentulus Gracchus might have an instructive, detailed answer. Off the top of my head I’d guess that changed in early modern times, like contemporary to Shakespeare.