I am going to assume that that is a rhetorical comment and not an attempt at mind reading.
I admit that my Latin is far better than my understanding of Greek, which is why I asked for your opinion on what the deeper exegestic meaning was. BTW, I am still interested in your opinion.
The "original" Greek is not known to exist. In any event the oldest manuscripts in existence are no less than 300-400 years after the fact copies.
I am not conversant in either Latin nor Greek and am not qualified to comment on any but plain English text. However, I find Jesus to be subordinate to His Father throughout Scripture.