Aside from the fact that the follow on event happened within the seismologists' timeframe, and within the 100 mile region pinpointed, vs it not happening within the astrologer's timeframe who didn't even specify a hemisphere.
And I'll make equivalent the theory that a chance of an earthquake being a foreshock as being 'ignored' to the question 'when did you stop beating your child?' Both imply things that didn't happen.
1/2 the population of one town is missing.
Were they warned in the 72 hours prior to their death that this might happen.
yes or no?