The long and short of it is that the judiciary has the power to determine for themselves what they think the constitutionality of something is but they DO NOT have the right nor the power to impose that on either of the other two branches. (If they did then we would not have three separate and equal branches of government now would we!)
Please read Dr. Paulsen's paper that I posted up thread to you. He explains it there FAR better than I am able to do here.
If you mean separation of powers, as it sounds like, then I agree. The Judiciary can no more order the legislative branch to perform a legislative act, say raise taxes, than the legislative or executive branches can overturn a judicial finding. Do I have this right?