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To: ClearCase_guy

No because the word ‘secession’ by definition deals with the delegation of powers regarding governance and the 10th makes it clear that the states retain the rights not delegated to the United States. The only way then for the states to secede is to usurp these rights and disregard the actual words of the 10th Amendment.


175 posted on 12/03/2010 12:32:09 PM PST by TheBigIf
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To: TheBigIf
Your posts don't even make sense to me any more. You don't quote the document. You don't explain your thought. You just post the same sort of sentence over and over again. I don't think you have any understanding of the historical context of the war or any understanding of what the language of the constitution really means.

I find that you are discussing this matter on a very low intellectual level, and I'm done with you.

177 posted on 12/03/2010 12:36:33 PM PST by ClearCase_guy
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