Is there anything in the Code of Military Conduct that would make brigade commanders’ orders for use of force in Iran “unlawful” if the President had not ordered the use of force pursuant to SJ Res 23? If so, what?
My question is about how the CMC and Congressional law interact with each other. Does the definition of “lawfulness” for general orders and regulations apply to all orders?
For reference, the CMC section on Article 92 begins on page 300 at http://usmilitary.about.com/library/pdf/mcm2000.pdf
Also, I respecfully ask you to cease and desist from ignoring the information you requested from me and I provided - Lakin’s actual orders and the charges against him which acknowledge that what Lakin disobeyed was a Temporary Change of Station from Walter Reed to Afghanistan, beginning by reporting to KY. There was never an independent order to report to KY; it was part of the TCS order.
Is it even possible to keep you focused on reality? Just for a moment? If and when a brigade commander decides for themself to invade a country without approval then we can talk. But idiotic scenarios such as this have absolutely nothing to do with the charges Lakin is facing or the validity of the orders he disobeyed.
Also, I respecfully ask you to cease and desist from ignoring the information you requested from me and I provided - Lakin’s actual orders and the charges against him which acknowledge that what Lakin disobeyed was a Temporary Change of Station from Walter Reed to Afghanistan, beginning by reporting to KY. There was never an independent order to report to KY; it was part of the TCS order.
And I would ask you to confine yourself to the charges Lakin is facing and not invent scenarios on your own.