Well then he should have worded the amendment that way, shouldn't he?
He did... for those who can read. That's what "... and subject to the jurisdiction thereof..." means. Lawyers have bastardized the law to what it is now... just like the 2nd Amendment... but the words still mean what they were meant to mean.
Yeah right.
We all see how well the "Shall not be infringed" wording worked"
Of course you can argue that the word infringed is not defined in the Constitution just like Natural Born Citizen is not defined either.
He did. The distinction is the phrase "subject to the jurisdiction thereof" and what it meant in 19th Century legalese. Howard was so focused upon including corporations under equal protection he didn't much care about the rest of it. Had we left things the way they were under the Civil Rights Act of 1866, we wouldn't have nearly the problems we do in this country now.