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Nowhere is the requirement of land ownership for the voting franchise spelled out in the Constitution, and by 1850 those requirements were eliminated. There were specific colonial and later state requirements for voting; but they were NOT based upon the Constitution.

http://www.history.org/foundation/journal/spring07/elections.cfm

Property requirements were widespread. Some colonies required a voter to own a certain amount of land or land of a specified value. Others required personal property of a certain value, or payment of a certain amount of taxes. Examples from 1763 show the variety of these requirements. Delaware expected voters to own fifty acres of land or property worth £40. Rhode Island set the limit at land valued at £40 or worth an annual rent of £2. Connecticut required land worth an annual rent of £2 or livestock worth £40.

Ben Franklin lampooned these requirements for property ownership thusly....

“Today a man owns a jackass worth 50 dollars and he is entitled to vote; but before the next election the jackass dies. The man in the mean time has become more experienced, his knowledge of the principles of government, and his acquaintance with mankind, are more extensive, and he is therefore better qualified to make a proper selection of rulers—but the jackass is dead and the man cannot vote. Now gentlemen, pray inform me, in whom is the right of suffrage? In the man or in the jackass?”

Now we all know plenty of jackasses out there voting! But really? ;)