Haven’t actually been able to follow this story too closely and don’t know much about maritime law— question: does Israel have the right to board ships in international waters like it did?
Does the US Coast Guard?
If a ship is attempting to run a legal blockade then yes, it is legal to board that ship.
“does Israel have the right to board ships in international waters like it did?”
Let me answer that with a question: does anyone have the right to stop a sovereign nation from enforcing an embargo?
Does anyone have the right to stop the United States from boarding a nork ship headed to Iran?
“maritime law”? enforced by who? in what court?
Israel’s actions in boarding the ship are in full compliance with International law as set down in paragraphs 5.2.1 and 5.2.10 of the Helsinki Principles on the Law of Maritime Neutrality:
5.2.1 Visit and search
As an exception to Principle 5.1.2. paragraph 1 and in accordance with Principle 1.3 (2nd sentence), belligerent warships have a right to visit and search vis-à-vis neutral commercial ships in order to ascertain the character and destination of their cargo. If a ship tries to evade this control or offers resistance, measures of coercion necessary to exercise this right are permissible. This includes the right to divert a ship where visit and search at the place where the ship is encountered are not practical.
5.2.10 Blockade
Blockade, i.e. the interdiction of all or certain maritime traffic coming from or going to a port or coast of a belligerent, is a legitimate method of naval warfare. In order to be valid, the blockade must be declared, notified to belligerent and neutral States, effective and applied impartially to ships of all States. A blockade may not bar access to neutral ports or coasts. Neutral vessels believed on reasonable and probable grounds to be breaching a blockade may be stopped and captured. If they, after prior warning, clearly resist capture, they may be attacked.
How far into international waters was it? Has there been an official statement to that effect, or is it the rabel that is making that claim? I haven’t been able to read everything about this yet.
A maritine blockade is pefectly legal to do so.
Yes. After an act of war, the victimized country has a right to impose a blockade, and it can be enforced before the ships enter territorial waters.
Example is Kennedy’s blackade of Cuba, which the State Department determined was a legal blockade.