Yes. By now we all know the founders were not "Natural Born Citizens." They "grandfathered" themselves (and their sons) in as Presidential and Vice Presidential candidates.
But, the Declaration of Independence pre-dates the Constitution by 13 years. The Constitution says "....at the time of ratification....," which was 1788. So, your real question is, "Did Americans stop being British Subjects on July 4th 1775?" What about Tories? Was a kid born on July 5th 1775 in Philadelphia to two natives of that city already a "Natural Born Citizen?"
I suggest you change your tag, it just advertises your lack of knowledge on this.
How so? Or do you think our putative POTUS might still be a British Subject, or Kenyan Citizen? (I think that technically, he is perhaps still a Dual Citizen, rather than a "former British Subject") In regard to GW, at what point do you think he stopped being a British Subject in rebellion, and became an American Citizen?
At the time of Independence each State would have had its own Constitution. As to eligibility to be US President, the office did not exist till the US Constitution was adopted, so the US President NBC requirement wasn’t needed.
Your tag implies that the circumstances of Wasington and Obama re NBC were the same, which is very misleading.
At the time of Independence each State would have had its own Constitution. As to eligibility to be US President, the office did not exist till the US Constitution was adopted, so the US President NBC requirement wasn’t needed.
Your tag implies that the circumstances of Wasington and Obama re NBC were the same, which is very misleading.