Posted on 08/18/2009 1:26:30 PM PDT by RicocheT
The Constitution provides for treaties, and even specifies that treaties will be "the supreme Law of the Land"; that is, that they will be binding on the states. But from 1787 on, it has been recognized that for a treaty to be valid, it must be consistent with the Constitutionthat the Constitution is a higher authority than treaties. And what is it that allows us to judge whether a treaty is consistent with the Constitution? Alexander Hamilton explained this in a pamphlet early on: "A treaty cannot change the frame of the government." And he gave a very logical reason: It is the Constitution that authorizes us to make treaties. If a treaty violates the Constitution, it would be like an agent betraying his principal or authority. And as I said, there has been a consensus on this in the past that few ever questioned.
(Excerpt) Read more at hillsdale.edu ...
“Make Mine Freedom!” 1948 cartoon about saving the American dream!
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ehDvnlyJPTA
Heck, everyone knows that real authority is at the appellate level as determined by wise Latina judges.
BUMP!
bttt
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