I'm going to need more than a few drinks to think this out: logically, if one is to claim that the murder of this doctor is justified because of a higher law, then why should one expect the murderer to be "absolved" (too early to think of a more accurate word) by the law?
One should claim the protection of the higher law, yes?
45 posted on 06/01/2009 6:29:29 AM PDT by 1rudeboy