[1rudeboy]

I'm going to need more than a few drinks to think this out: logically, if one is to claim that the murder of this doctor is justified because of a higher law, then why should one expect the murderer to be "absolved" (too early to think of a more accurate word) by the law?

One should claim the protection of the higher law, yes?

[knarf]

I'm with you on the prelude to thinking this through logically ... except, by the time I get to that point .... I'm nowhere near being logical .... or capable of thought, for THAT matter.

Good luck to us all.

[Trailerpark Badass]

I'm going to need more than a few drinks to think this out: logically, if one is to claim that the murder of this doctor is justified because of a higher law, then why should one expect the murderer to be "absolved" (too early to think of a more accurate word) by the law?

Who's saying that?

It's obvious the guy is going to be subject to the laws of Kansas, if not some federal show trial as well.

I haven't read anyone here say he should be "absolved" according to those laws.