I don't have any legal or constitutional training but it seems to me that by this 'logic' no one would have a right to ask for evidence of citizenship in this particular situation, so wouldn't that render useless the relevant constitutional provision?
It also implies that a citizen has no standing to demand that elections be conducted according to the US Constitution unless that citizen can somehow prove quantifiable personal damage if the Constitution is violated?
Are we in Catch-22 here?
The FEC is against vetting a candidate for President of the USA. wtf