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To: DelphiUser
The Greek for that could just as easily be interpreted to be "At least one wife" the words in Greek used allowed for both meanings and everyone who spoke Greek would understand it that way. in translation, however, we often have a bit of interpretation, here is one instance where the bible was not "translated correctly".

Joseph Smith, the ol' horndog himself, WANTED it to be 'translated' to justify his longings.

He CORRECTED in the JST.

--MormonDude(Sure he did!! Just look it up. Why should I have to do YOUR homework?)

2,407 posted on 04/11/2008 5:35:59 AM PDT by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: Elsie
He CORRECTED in the JST.
--MormonDude(Sure he did!! Just look it up. Why should I have to do YOUR homework?)

Not really, 1 Tim 3:2 from the JST (IV)

2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behavior, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

Guess all us anti's had it right all along

2,457 posted on 04/11/2008 8:21:04 AM PDT by Godzilla (The early bird may get the worm, but the second mouse gets the cheese.)
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