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To: Colofornian
As my last post to you shows, the fact that Moses used the same word 9 chapters earlier to mean (sexual) "mate"--I think that's a possible translation...

Indeed it is a possible translation. However, I don't believe there is any legitimate translation that uses that word. But it is possible.

The fact is that Sarai was Abram's mate and so was Hagar. And that would be a legitmate translation provided that the same word was translated the same way both in the beginning of the sentence and the end. Since in that verse they are both described using the same word, the implication is that the relationship was deemed to be equal or identical.

1,975 posted on 04/10/2008 6:22:22 AM PDT by P-Marlowe (LPFOKETT GAHCOEEP-w/o*)
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To: P-Marlowe
No matter WHAT the correct 'legal' term was/is/could_have_been for Hagar; the facts remain that ONLY thru the FIRST wife/whatever did the PROMISE come.

THAT line brought us the Messiah, no matter how many foxes in the henhouse/snakes_in_the_grass were in it.

When Christ died and rose again for ME, His 'it is finished' ended the WORK of the Cross.

All that is left, is to tell the world about His sacrifice and grace.


"We don't need no steenkin' Restored Gospel®!"


2,073 posted on 04/10/2008 9:43:10 AM PDT by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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