Well, no. The Founding Fathers were quite specific as to whom they were referring. If they meant a citizen they wrote "citizen". If they meant an indiviual they wrote "person". If they meant more than one person they wrote "persons" (not people).
For example, Article II, Section 1, Clause 3 reads, "The Electors shall meet in their respective States, and vote by Ballot for two Persons, of whom one at least shall not ..." (Today, we would say, "... and vote by Ballot for two people").
"The people" referred to a select group on individuals -- the enfranchised body politic. These individuals were connected to the country -- they held office, they voted, they owned land -- and they had the most at stake. They had full rights.
We know who they are. Article I, Section 2 reads (in part), "The House of Representatives shall be composed of members chosen every second year by the people of the several states ..." (my underline)
"The people" = the voters. Who voted in 1792? Adult, white, male citizens. They were "the people". Not all persons. Not even all citizens (women and children didn't vote).
Article XV.
Section 1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.
Ratification was completed on February 3, 1870
Article [XIX]
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex.
Ratification was completed on August 18, 1920.
By your logic then freedom of speech, religion and assembly would only apply to white males. It is obvious this is not the case so stop the tortured verbal contortions. “The People” is construed to mean the same for all of the Constitution, not just how you want to dance around with it specifically for the Second Amendment.
Ravenstar