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To: robertpaulsen; All
These two Amendments redefined 'the people'.

Article XV.
Section 1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.
Ratification was completed on February 3, 1870

Article [XIX]
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex.
Ratification was completed on August 18, 1920.

73 posted on 03/18/2008 7:21:31 AM PDT by Pistolshot (Remember, no matter how bad your life is, someone is watching and enjoying your suffering.)
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To: Pistolshot
"These two Amendments redefined 'the people'."

That is correct. I never meant to imply otherwise.

The reasons I went back to 1792 were that a) we had a well regulated Militia, b) the membership of the Militia was clearly defined in the Militia Act of 1792) and, c) "the people" were clearly defined in Article I, Section 2 as the enfranchised body politic.

To determine the original meaning of the Founding Fathers, we see that "the people" of the second amendment = "the people" of Article I, Section 2 = the enfranchised body politic (ie., the voters) = adult, white, male citizens = Militia members.

My conclusion from this is that the second amendment protected the right to keep and bear arms of those individuals in a well regulated Militia from federal infringement. It's an individual right exercised collectively (similar to voting).

If the right to keep and bear arms also encompassed hunting and self defense and other reasons, it would make no sense to limit the protection of this right to such a small group of individuals (less than 20% of the population in 1792). I would think the second amendment, in that case, would read, "the right of all free persons" or "the right of all citizens".

79 posted on 03/18/2008 7:55:25 AM PDT by robertpaulsen
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