There is no such exclusion in the Constitution you are making up words out of whole cloth! It said simply the people! Where does it say specifically Adult, white male citizens. All Persons is THE PEOPLE! As I said before go back to English Class.
Ravenstar
Well, no. The Founding Fathers were quite specific as to whom they were referring. If they meant a citizen they wrote "citizen". If they meant an indiviual they wrote "person". If they meant more than one person they wrote "persons" (not people).
For example, Article II, Section 1, Clause 3 reads, "The Electors shall meet in their respective States, and vote by Ballot for two Persons, of whom one at least shall not ..." (Today, we would say, "... and vote by Ballot for two people").
"The people" referred to a select group on individuals -- the enfranchised body politic. These individuals were connected to the country -- they held office, they voted, they owned land -- and they had the most at stake. They had full rights.
We know who they are. Article I, Section 2 reads (in part), "The House of Representatives shall be composed of members chosen every second year by the people of the several states ..." (my underline)
"The people" = the voters. Who voted in 1792? Adult, white, male citizens. They were "the people". Not all persons. Not even all citizens (women and children didn't vote).