MarkL wrote: “The civil suit was for intentional ... oh damn, I can’t recall the exact words... But the key is that it’s for intentionally causing emotional harm, which IS actionable.”
I remember a case a couple years ago where a couple women sued an airline for using a term they thought was derogatory. I don’t know if the women won, but I hope they lost. Nevertheless, they probably needed to prove the airline used the term intentionally to intimidate them, right?
Here’s another example. Let’s say a minority angers you, and you respond with a racial slur. To be more specific, you call them a name but don’t use it in an assault. Could they win a civil judgment on something like that?
Given the court system, quite possibly.
Mark