Speaking of Fed Thompson, I see a problem with the question the SCOTUS is asking: it asks whether private citizens have the right to firearms in their homes, not whether they have the right to use those firarms for self defense in their homes or for defense OF their homes.
That would be a bad thing, IMHO, and I think they've rephrased the question correctly. They said 'for private use in their homes.' They don't limit that use in any way. It's strictly the question of right to keep and use. If you have a right to keep it and use it then the question of what use you put it to is a separate matter, still appropriately left for definition in another setting. The need for the firearms for self defense is going to be an inherent part of the arguments in favor of over turning the law and need not be stated in the question.
And why would that be an issue involving FDT in this context?