Because you make no sense. Individuals pay the FairTax at the point-of-sale for anything they purchase. There is no submitting anything.
The criminal is avoiding $2300 worth of taxes. It works out the same under either tax scheme.
That is not true. It does not work out the same under both tax schemes. I say again, each individual person pays the FairTax at the point-of-sale for the taxable goods or services he or she wishes to purchase.
You seem to be faulting the FairTax because a Drug Dealer would not collect taxes on behalf of the government for the contraband he sells. A sane person would only consider that valid if illicit drug dealing were decriminalized.
It is not a valid criticism of the FairTax, especially because the current income tax scheme can not collect any tax from drug dealers and all other individuals in the underground society. The FairTax will.
Because you make no sense. Individuals pay the FairTax at the point-of-sale for anything they purchase. There is no submitting anything.What is there, some government agent there to grab it out of the "individual's" hand?
I make perfect sense. A drug dealer is a seller of goods, which under the fairtax are suppose to be taxed. If I sell $10,000 worth of consumable goods, I would be absolutely liable under the fairtax to submit $2300. I must pay a gross retail sales tax, period. I would only net $7700 if I followed the law. The drug dealer nets $10,000 and will pocket the extra $2300 he is legally liable to submit. He has that extra $2300 to spend. It works out EXACTLY the same under both systems. I am not being critical of the fairtax, I am pointing out a simple fact.
You want to get in to sematics about who pays it and claim it is the buyer. Under the fairtax, it is the seller who pays it. It comes off of his profit. As a seller of goods or services, I have to convince my customer that my goods are worth $100 eventhough I only get to keep $77. A drug dealer or prostitute doesn't. They cheat the fairtax system, period.