I make perfect sense. A drug dealer is a seller of goods, which under the fairtax are suppose to be taxed. If I sell $10,000 worth of consumable goods, I would be absolutely liable under the fairtax to submit $2300. I must pay a gross retail sales tax, period. I would only net $7700 if I followed the law. The drug dealer nets $10,000 and will pocket the extra $2300 he is legally liable to submit. He has that extra $2300 to spend. It works out EXACTLY the same under both systems. I am not being critical of the fairtax, I am pointing out a simple fact.
You want to get in to sematics about who pays it and claim it is the buyer. Under the fairtax, it is the seller who pays it. It comes off of his profit. As a seller of goods or services, I have to convince my customer that my goods are worth $100 eventhough I only get to keep $77. A drug dealer or prostitute doesn't. They cheat the fairtax system, period.
And today that drug dealer sells $10,000 worth of drugs and thus is liable for income and FICA taxes but doesn't pay a penny.
You want to get in to sematics about who pays it and claim it is the buyer. Under the fairtax, it is the seller who pays it.
The buyer pays ALL taxes. While yes, legally the retailer "pays" it and submits it to the government, you know, I know, everyone knows (or should know) that the one who really "pays" it is the consumer.
I have to convince my customer that my goods are worth $100 eventhough I only get to keep $77. A drug dealer or prostitute doesn't. They cheat the fairtax system, period.
As do your competitors. Do the drug dealers and prostitutes cheat the income tax system?