[Always Right]

How could you not see that after the FairTax he may still get his gains through nefarious ways but would then pay federal tax when he or his family makes a purchase?

But how can you not see when he sells his $10K worth of drugs he fails to submit the $2300 worth of fairtax. The criminal is avoiding $2300 worth of taxes. It works out the same under either tax scheme.

[higgmeister]

But how can you not see when he sells his $10K worth of drugs he fails to submit the $2300 worth of fairtax.

Because you make no sense. Individuals pay the FairTax at the point-of-sale for anything they purchase. There is no submitting anything.

The criminal is avoiding $2300 worth of taxes. It works out the same under either tax scheme.

That is not true. It does not work out the same under both tax schemes. I say again, each individual person pays the FairTax at the point-of-sale for the taxable goods or services he or she wishes to purchase.

You seem to be faulting the FairTax because a Drug Dealer would not collect taxes on behalf of the government for the contraband he sells. A sane person would only consider that valid if illicit drug dealing were decriminalized.

It is not a valid criticism of the FairTax, especially because the current income tax scheme can not collect any tax from drug dealers and all other individuals in the underground society. The FairTax will.

[lewislynn]

But how can you not see when he sells his $10K worth of drugs he fails to submit the $2300 worth of fairtax. The criminal is avoiding $2300 worth of taxes. It works out the same under either tax scheme.

Except under the Fairtax the drug dealer would get who knows how many "prebate" checks every month.