Around 1/7 of the Indian population is supposed to be Muslim. So if Pakistan and Bangladesh were added, the population of Muslims would be huge—not close to a majority, but still very large, and over 10%.
I confess that I have absolutely no idea what the correct percentages are. But this leaves me confused.
One-seventh is about 14.3 percent. If over 14 percent of the current Indian population is Muslim, how will that percentage be reduced to "over 10%" if the largely Muslim Pakistan and Bangladesh were added to the mix?
Also, in a previous post, you noted that "only around 3-5% of India is Muslim today"--far less than the 14-plus percent that would equal one-seventh.
And you state that even "with Pakistan and Bangladeshs populations added in" the total percentage of Muslims would be "still less than 10%"--not "over 10%," as stated in the next post.
Again, I admit my own ignorance as to the correct numbers. But these numbers seem to contradict themselves.
Am I just reading this incorrectly, or is there a misprint somewhere?