IIRC = If I remember correctly.
Leviticus - the part of the Law that punished a man greater for causing the death of another man’s wife than it did for causing his wife to miscarry.
Since I have already pointed out that this isn’t about religion, Leviticus is a moot argument. Next.
The English translation shows the word to mean "miscarriage", though the Hebrew word is "yasa" which actually means "to come forth". The word, itself, does not imply death, though the English word obviously does. So why presume the child is dead? If the writer wanted to imply death, he could have actually chosen the word that does. Moses uses "miscarriage" in other places, why not here? Most likely because the word is implying that the injury brings about the premature birth of the child. In fact the NASB translation, which is word-for-word says,
"If men struggle with each other and strike a woman with child so that she gives birth prematurely, yet there is no injury, he shall surely be fined as the woman's husband may demand of him, and he shall pay as the judges decide."
So, no, the Lord does not view the unborn child as less valuable than that of someone outside of the womb. In fact, scripture is quite clear in other places of the value God places on the unborn child, and that He is at the very beginning of the process.