It doesn't take much thought to start rejecting some of the points in this article.
"In 1954, a psychologist used those test results to identify all 28 children in the New York public-school system with measured IQ’s of 170 or higher. Of those 28, 24 were Jews."
And ALSO at the time, NYC had a huge Jewish population in comparison to today, and much of the non-Jewish white population was in private or parochial schools, especially the portion of the population we would expect to have a higher IQ (children of the wealthy and successful). Why WOULDN'T we expect overwhelming Jewish dominance of a public school test from 1950's NYC?
About 1 million Jews were killed in the revolts against the Romans in Judea and Egypt.
During the Jewish revolt Vespasian only had four legions XII Fulminata, XV Apollinaris, X Fretensis and V Macedonica to do the killing. It seems quite unlikely that 4 legions of 6200 (even with the back-up of additional auxilliaries) could slaughter 1 million or even 500,000 at arms or in revolt. This questionable figure comes from Josephus, who claims 1 million dead just in Jerusalem. Herodian Jerusalem was, as can be seen by the lines of the walls, a tiny place of 220 acres adequate for about 15,000 or so people both in size and in water resources (even today, modern Jerusalem on a vastly expanded footprint only has 725,000 people). Murray's lack of credulity with such numbers bespeaks to his general use of them in the article.
In general, taking IQ findings among a small self-selected sample of 100 or so in the US (as Murray and Herrnstein did), and then pretending that extrapolates to a population at large does not seem credible. It seems far more reasonable to point to the overall lower IQ score in Israel than European countires as proof that Ashkenazi Jews dont' have any special IQ advantage.
Are you willing or able to tease out the Arab and Sephardic populations?