You said -- "More than 30 years ago I heard this interpretation of this passage as referring to the pre-Trib rapture. It's another example of eisegesis based on previously held interpretations the truth of which is taken for granted and, therefore, never thoroughly examined."
It's already thoroughly explained here (link below), in regards to the original language. And also note the translations prior to King James (given in that note, too). That puts it (at least for the translators) back about 500 years ago. But, for the church, it's already been explained elsewhere that it's been there from the first few centuries. You can read up on it. This first link will give you a start -- and move your date of 30 years -- at least back another 500 years. More reading will move it back a couple of millennia --
http://www.pre-trib.org/article-view.php?id=165
They are much better qualified than me to explain it. That's why the link was given up above.
Regards,
Star Traveler