You are the one making it an English usage issue. The phrase "right of the people" is pretty explicit. YOU are claiming that the modifying phrase is more valid than the subject. Why don't you check out some of Copperud's English usage books. They are available on Amazon.
WHAT?? You're the one who posted that article, not me.
"YOU are claiming that the modifying phrase is more valid than the subject"
THE COURTS are claiming that this "modifying phrase" is part of the second amendment. YOU, on the other hand, are completely ignoring the phrase, saying that the second amendment means exactly the same thing with or without it.