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To: All
Someone please help me with this

My wife and I were talking about that Colarado gay marriage ban, and it hit me, do these state bans not constitute part of the Constitutional Amendment process, initiated by the states? Constitutional Amendments can be instituted by the U.S. Congress, or the States. When the 33rd state passes a gay marriage ban stating that marriage is ONLY between a man and a woman, does that not qualify as a Constitutional Amendment and the Congress would have to recognize that, and it would then become the 28th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution? And if so, the U.S. Supreme Court cannot over turn it. 2/3rds of the States, and 2/3rds of the U.S. House and Senate would have to vote to repeal it. Do these State by State gay marriage bans constitute part of the State initiated Constitutional Amendment process???

70 posted on 11/03/2006 9:23:29 AM PST by TexasPatriot8 (Issues matter. The Democrats can Foley & Macaca all they want to. They're still wrong on the issues!)
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To: TexasPatriot8
Probably not, since the wording of an amendment would most likely say, "An initiative to amend the (fill in name of state here) Constitution..."
78 posted on 11/03/2006 9:26:51 AM PST by Darth Republican
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To: All

Play the "will the voters stay home?" Drinking Game!
Heres a good dare do a shot for each time someone in the Lamestream Press, PMSNBC and Al CNN says or asks
"Do you think this will have the Conservative or Evangelical voters home!"

I doubt anyone could last a hour!! LOL

It's a concerted effort to suppress the GOP GOTV effort and its not going to work!!


79 posted on 11/03/2006 9:27:03 AM PST by MichiganRepublican
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To: TexasPatriot8

the are all different.

some prohibit civil unions
some of the early ones allow civil unions (it was a homosexual legal manuver to invalidate the amendment via a judicial manuver)


93 posted on 11/03/2006 9:32:58 AM PST by longtermmemmory (VOTE! http://www.senate.gov and http://www.house.gov)
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