ML was a subordinate in a work environment to BC. Consenting or not this is by definition sexual harassment.When did consenting sex between two adults, regardless if one is a subordinate of the other, become the definition of sexual harassment? Did I miss something?
When it occurs AT WORK and one is a subordinate of the other, it is ALWAYS sexual harassment.
All the other interns could easily have file a grievance that ML had received preferential treatment, and won a lot of dough.
As I recall, Jordan went out of his way to help ML find a high paying, do nothing job in New York.
Did he do this for every intern or just ML?
Dear Your Nightmare,
Many organizations try to prevent romantic/sexual relationships between individuals where one is in a chain of command directly subordinate to the other. It can become difficult to tell if and when the relationship is truly consensual, or conversely, when it ceases to be truly consensual.
Where the disparity between the two partners is as great as in the case of Mr. Clinton and Ms. Lewinsky, it wouldn't be unfair to say that the relationship may be viewed as inherently abusive.
sitetest
Obviously you have...do you know ANYTHING about employment law?
What you missed was Sexual Harassment Training for governmental employees. (I have had it several times). A manager having sex with a subordinate is considered sexual harassment. The fact that it is consensual between adults doesn't change that fact.
Their rationale is that even if its consensual - it will have an effect on decision making concerning the subordinate.