If it were, it would be unConstitutional, thus treasonous
True, but any attempt on the part of a state to change the method that is used to allocate its electoral votes would certainly face a lot of legal scrutiny under Federal laws like the Voting Rights Act. A system in which electoral votes are given to a candidate who loses an election -- even by a wide margin -- may not stand up to a legal challenge.
To illustrate how preposterous this could be, just consider this hypothetical example . . .
Suppose a future Republican presidential candidate was so pessimistic about his chances to win the state of California that the GOP didn't even bother going through the process of getting on the ballot in the state. If the Democratic candidate won the state by securing 100% of the popular vote (I'll ignore minor party candidates for the sake of this example) but the Republican candidate won the national popular vote, would California be forced (under its own stupid law) to cast its electoral votes for a candidate who wasn't even on its own ballot?
Gotcha, loud and clear. Thanks.
Still, what do you think about the whole thing?