No you did not and whatever verses you posted do not change the meaning of a direct quote whatsoever.
"I ask again (since you did not answer the question): your criteria for determinimg what is and is not God's word is....?"
You rearranged the words of a prior post to someone else. That is how you posed this question. I take the word's of God directly, then do I attempt to understand other scipture. God came here to teach. In order to know what He taught, who He is and what He is about, I'll go to the source. Whatever anyone else has to say, I'll reference back to the source. If you learn from God, then you can understand the word of God. There is no other way.
Matthew 13:34
Jesus spoke all these things to the crowd in parables; he did not say anything to them without using a parable.
Matt 13:10-17
The disciples came to him and asked, "Why do you speak to the people in parables?"
He replied, "The knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them. Whoever has will be given more, and he will have an abundance. Whoever does not have, even what he has will be taken from him. This is why I speak to them in parables:
"Though seeing, they do not see;
though hearing, they do not hear or understand.
In them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah:
" 'You will be ever hearing but never understanding;
you will be ever seeing but never perceiving.
For this people's heart has become calloused;
they hardly hear with their ears,
and they have closed their eyes.
Otherwise they might see with their eyes,
hear with their ears,
understand with their hearts
and turn, and I would heal them.'[Isaiah 6:9,10]
But blessed are your eyes because they see, and your ears because they hear. For I tell you the truth, many prophets and righteous men longed to see what you see but did not see it, and to hear what you hear but did not hear it.
Perhaps you think only God speaks in parables and that Moses and Paul spoke differently. They did not. Matt 19:7-9
"Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?"
Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."
Had God not said this, adulters would be writing off their spouses according to the hardness in their hearts and justifying it by God and Moses. The same goes for the actions justified by what Paul, or some other prophet said. This is another passage that expands on the fundamental passage regarding damnation, which no one has posted.
(That IS the logical conclusion to be drawn from your post...)